No, the values of the two limits are not
equal.
The value of the 1st limit is 0 and the value of the
2nd limit is 1/2.
But, let's see
why.
We'll determine the value of the 1st
limit.
If we'll replace x by the 0 value, we'll get an
indetermination, "0/0" type, therefore, we'll apply L'Hospital's
rule.
lim (1-cos x)/x = lim (1-cos
x)'/x'
lim (1-cos x)'/x' = lim sin x/1 = lim sin
x
lim sin x = sin 0 = 0
lim
(1-cos x)/x = 0
We'll determine the vlaue of the 2nd
limit:
lim (1-cos x)/x^2
If
we'll replace x by the 0 value, we'll get an indetermination, "0/0" type, therefore,
we'll apply L'Hospital's rule.
lim (1-cos x)/x^2 = lim
(1-cos x)'/(x^2)'
lim (1-cos x)'/(x^2)' = lim sin
x/2x
If we'll replace x by the 0 value, we'll get "0/0"
type indetermination, again.
lim sin x/2x = lim (sin
x)'/(2x)'
lim (sin x)'/(2x)' = lim (cos
x)/2
lim (cos x)/2 = cos
0/2
lim (cos x)/2 = 1/2
lim
(1-cos x)/x^2 = 1/2
Therefore, the values of
the limits of the given functions, when x approaches to 0, are not
equal.
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