In 1985, why did Ronald Reagan violate his principle of not negotiating with terrorists?A) to win re-election // B) to save the lives of his...

As with all multiple choice questions, if you have a
textbook, course readings, or notes from an instructor that need to be followed, I would
stick with those before venturing out anywhere else.  Options A and B are not logical
because Iran-Contra took place in the President's second term and his family members
were not directly involved.  There is little to indicate that the President and his
staff needed to secure needed arms sales, especially to a nation like Iran that was
under an arms embargo.  I would say that one of the hopes of those who facilitated the
transactions in the Iran-Contra Affair hoped for letter D
in obtaining the release of American Hostages in Lebanon.  It was believed that Iran
would be able to be of some influence in the release of hostages that were held in
Lebanon.  At the same time, another hope of the engagement was to help fund the Contra
rebellion in Nicaragua.  It should be noted that nothing was really proven in suggesting
that Reagan had authorized the affair.  The Tower Commission criticized Reagan for
promoting a climate that was not under his control, but could not conclude that Reagan
had direct knowledge of violating any principle that precluded with negotiating with
terrorists.