Shakespeare disagreed about the mind body problem; could you further explain this, as seen in Macbeth, etc.?

My understanding of the mind/body problem is that the
relationship between the mind and body can be perceived in one of two ways. The first is
called the "monistic" theory that states that the mind and body are
not separate.

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This view was first advocated in Western
philosophy by Parmenides in the 5th century
BC.

The second is the
dualistic theory, which can be traced back to Plato and Aristotle. According to this way
of thinking, the mind and body were not one, but two separate
parts:

...mind
is thought to be of a substance other than a physical
substance

I would assume that
Shakespeare disagreed with the monistic
theory, and agreed with the dualistic
precept.

In Macbeth, there is reason
to believe that Shakespeare sees a separation between mind and
body.

Macbeth finds that Macduff has fled to England. He
reminds himself that from now, on, he will make sure his thoughts and actions are
completed at the same time, inferring that they have been separate before
now:

From this
moment

The very firstlings of my heart shall
be

The firstlings of my hand.
(IV.i.46-48)

Also in
Macbeth, when Lady Macbeth begins to walk in her sleep, her mind is
addled and her dreams are haunted, yet she gets up and walks like she would when awake,
wringing and washing her hands. It would seem that the mind is not in tact, but that the
body still functions.

In this play, the mind is often at
odds with the body. Again, in the dagger scene, Macbeth's mind perceives the dagger, but
his hand cannot grasp it.

In Hamlet,
this theme is also seen. Hamlet considers suicide but is concerned that instead of
nothingness after death, there might be dreams to torment one. Dreams are a part of the
mind; if the body is dead, the mind must be separate to survive and have
dreams.

In my opinion, Shakespeare would seem more a
dualistic theorist rather than a monistic theorist.